Wednesday, December 5, 2007
John 10 and the Jews
Here's a more blatant, intentional change in the text: John 10, particularly verses 24, 31, 33. The Greek clearly says "Jews" are speaking with and are angry with Jesus in these verses. Every translation I can find reads "the Jews."
CARS replaces "Jews" with "the people," or "they."
I can guess why they would do that: Muslims like to blame the death of Jesus on the Jews (and many believe Jesus will return and destroy them in the last days). Really, we all crucified Christ because we have all sinned.
But... the Greek as original as we can get, right? The Greek clearly says "Jews." So, does replacing an unmistakable word like "Jews" with another word bother anyone else but me?
Psalm 1:6
Psalm 1
How important is word-for-word translation in Scripture?
I’ve asked this question recently in looking at a new Russian translation of Scripture, whose target audience is Russian-speaking Muslims in
Psalm 1:6 says (NASB):
“For the Lord knows the way of the righteous, but the way of the wicked will perish.”
Russian Synodal:
1:6 Ибо знает Господь пут праведных, а путь нечестивых погибнет.
They match up well. As does KJV (“Knoweth”, NIV “considers”, and the Latin Vulgate which I understand says “considers”).
Âåäü Âå÷íûé îõðàíÿåò ïóòü ïðàâåäíûõ,à ïóòü íå÷åñòèâûõ ïîãèáíåò.
“Охранять” means “to guard, safeguard, to protect,” and doesn’t mean “to know”
I don’t know Hebrew, and don’t have a Hebrew concordance with me. My Zondervan Expository Dictionary says that there are several uses of of yada, “to know,” in Hebrew. “The root appears almost 950 times in the OT and is used in referring to all kinds of knowledge gained through the senses. Yada` is used also to indicate a knowing of information and facts, the learning of skills, acquaintance with persons, and even the intimacy of sexual intercourse. Although Hebrew is not a philosophical or speculative language, it is clear that "to know" calls for more than direct experience”
I don’t see how “to know” can mean "to protect" in this instance. I can understand one might expect the 2 ideas in the verse to contrast: “God protects the way of the righteous, but the way of the sinner (is unprotected and) leads to death.”
But, I don’t think that’s what the verse says. The Youngs Literal Translation:
“For Jehovah is knowing the way of the righteous, And the way of the wicked is lost!”
Matthew Henry writes:
“They are blessed because the Lord knows their way; he chose them into it, inclined them to choose it, leads and guides them in it, and orders all their steps. 2. Sinners must bear all the blame of their own destruction. Therefore the ungodly perish, because the very way in which they have chosen and resolved to walk leads directly to destruction; it naturally tends towards ruin and therefore must necessarily end in it. Or we may take it thus, The Lord approves and is well pleased with the way of the righteous, and therefore, under the influence of his gracious smiles, it shall prosper and end well; but he is angry at the way of the wicked, all they do is offensive to him, and therefore it shall perish, and they in it. …Let this support the drooping spirits of the righteous, that the Lord knows their way, knows their hearts (Jer. 12:3), knows their secret devotions (Mt. 6:6), knows their character, how much soever it is blackened and blemished by the reproaches of men, and will shortly make them and their way manifest before the world, to their immortal joy and honour.
This doesn’t sound like “guard,” or “protect.”
I tried several other English translations. “Sees, knows, regards…”
Then, I tried two other languages. Turkish and Azerbaijani, which are very closely related.
Interestingly, the Azerbaijani also renders this “guard/protect,” while the Turkish is very clearly “considers.”
My question for all of you into exegesis and hermeneutics is: Does this matter? Does it change the idea of the verse?
I think it does. I offer Matthew Henry’s thoughts above and contrast them with the idea I get with the word rendered “guard” instead of “know:”
“The Lord guards the way of the righteous, but the way of the brings them to death.”
It’s a nice thought, and there are other places in Scripture where this appears to be said, but it’s not what this verse says.
Any takers?